KYD STUFF
May 12, 2005
by Joe Sobran
In college I was once assigned to read a play called
THE SPANISH TRAGEDY, one of the big hits of the
Elizabethan theater. I was taught that it was written by
Thomas Kyd, who was also believed to have written an
early version of HAMLET -- largely because THE SPANISH
TRAGEDY, like the HAMLET we know as Shakespeare's,
features murder, revenge, a ghost, a suicide, and a
play-within-the-play.
Until recently, I believed all this. But as usual,
the textbook account of history turns out, under
inspection, to be a glossy oversimplification.
Almost nothing is actually known of Kyd. He is said
to have been born in 1558 and to have died in 1594. He
was apparently tortured to tell the authorities what he
knew about the murky playwright Christopher Marlowe, whom
he accused of blasphemy and who apparently died in a
brawl in 1593 (though details of his death remain
disputed).
All we really know about THE SPANISH TRAGEDY is that
it went through more than ten printings (even the exact
number is unclear) from around 1590 to 1633. None of
these identified its author; only a 1612 reference to
"Mr. Kid" credits him with the play.
As for the idea that Kyd also wrote an early play
about Hamlet, there is no evidence for this whatsoever --
though many scholars swear he did. But a passing joke by
Thomas Nashe about Hamlet's name in 1589 has convinced
the scholars that there must have been an earlier play
about the Prince of Denmark by then -- and that it had
been written by someone other than Shakespeare, since the
scholars agree that he couldn't have written his HAMLET
before about 1600.
Unfortunately for the scholars, no trace of this
supposed play has ever been found. If Kyd had written
such a play, as well as the hugely popular SPANISH
TRAGEDY, why wasn't it printed even once?
In other words, the whole idea of an "earlier"
Hamlet play depends on the dubious assumption that Nashe
couldn't have been referring to Shakespeare's version in
1589. This in turn assumes that Shakespeare was too young
to have written his masterpiece so early. Which further
assumes that "Shakespeare" was the Stratford man, William
Shakspere, born in 1564 and only 25 at the time of
Nashe's joke about Hamlet and his "tragical speeches."
But Nashe was almost surely referring to the
Shakespeare play. In 1592 he wrote a diatribe against
drunkenness that strongly resembles Hamlet's speech on
the subject in Act I, Scene IV. Like Hamlet, Nashe
singles out the Danes as notoriously "swinish" sots and
uses various other words in the same speech, such as
"heavy-headed," "manners," "nature," and "vice."
Others referred to a Hamlet again in 1594 and 1596.
Though the scholars insist these meant that hypothetical
"early" play, it appears much more likely that they meant
the only version whose existence is undoubted:
Shakespeare's, which by 1603 had been performed in
London, at Oxford and Cambridge Universities, and
elsewhere. In 1607 it was even staged aboard an English
ship off the coast of Sierra Leone! In 1626 a troupe of
English actors also took it to Dresden.
Even Shakespeare's authentic version presents
nightmares for editors, because three different versions
of it have actually survived: a short, corrupt edition in
1603, a much longer and better edition in 1604, and a
1623 version that cut about 220 lines from the 1604
edition but added 80 new ones and changed many others.
Sorting all this out is a labor of Hercules, since
we can't know quite what Shakespeare intended. So modern
textbook editions of HAMLET are far from being as
definitive as they seem. Editors still come to blows over
some of the most famous lines in Hamlet's "tragical
speeches." Is his flesh "solid," "sallied," or "sullied"?
But in order to maintain the notion that Shakspere
of Stratford was "Shakespeare," the scholars have to keep
insisting that Thomas Kyd or someone else had written
that nonexistent early version of HAMLET. If this were
the case, however, a text of that play, or at least some
unmistakable mention of it, even a quotation from it,
would have turned up by now. The only "evidence" that it
ever existed is the circular logic of the scholars who
say it "must have" existed.
Of course it all depends on who Shakespeare was and
how old he was. If the scholars have gotten these basic
facts wrong, it's no wonder that they've been confused
about so many other things.
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